Should You Believe in the Trinity? 1 of 2

The First Holy Commandment of God is found in Exodus 20:1-3:

“I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery. You shall have no other gods before Me.”

Isaiah 43:10 "...before Me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after Me."

Hosea 13:4 “Yet I have been the LORD your God Since the land of Egypt; And you were not to know any god except Me, For there is no savior besides Me.”

I write about this subject because I love the LORD my God with all my heart, with all my soul and with all my mind and I love you, my neighbor, as myself (Mat 22:38-39).

Was the LORD God who spoke the Word a Trinity? If so, don’t you think He would have revealed this to His people from the creation? The Jews are monotheists and always have been. They witnessed God in Spirit (clouds, fire, power, inspirational words through the Prophets) and human form (i.e. to Abraham and Jacob), yet never split Him into persons.

To receive Jesus Christ as Lord in no way compromises monotheism, when you understand He is God Himself. The Trinity doctrine is as this image above. It teaches the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are equally God, but that each is not the other. If each is not the other, then the Trinity is a polytheist, pagan teaching. This doctrine was not birthed until the Catholic church introduced it, along with a multitude of other pagan beliefs and practices. In this exposition, I will show you WHY I no longer believe in what I was always taught – the Trinity: God in three persons.

Because I was raised in the Protestant faith, I never knew much about Catholicism. All I knew is there had to be good reason for believers to break away from the Catholic ‘church’. Sure, I knew they practiced things Protestants do not believe are biblical: that the ‘Church’ was founded upon Peter; the canonizing of saints; praying to and through those saints that have died (and angels, too); their exaltation of Mary as the “Queen of Heaven” and mediator; believing that the Pope or Priest could forgive [remit] sins, etc.

Throughout my Christian walk, I’ve come to find out it was the Catholic church that implemented the doctrine of the Trinity, which is the subject of this writing. They also instigated the birth date of Christ as December 25^th. Since they celebrate the “Immaculate Conception” on December 8^th, how is it possible Jesus could be born over a year later? How many “trinity” gods have sons born on December 25^th? Why do we celebrate “Christ-Mass” with decorated trees and Saint Nicholas?

I find it quite ‘interesting’ that they observe the 40 days of Lent and refer to Mary as the “Queen of Heaven”. I recently studied the roots of Easter and found out about Ishtar (pronounced Easter) who was impregnated by the rays of the sun god (her dead husband, Nimrod), and had a son named Tammuz. Indeed, Nimrod was the wicked, great-great grandson of Noah. If you read Eze 8:14, you will see that people mourned the death of Tammuz for 40 days before celebrating his 'resurrection' and honoring his mother, the “Queen of Heaven”. Why do we yet celebrate Easter with eggs and rabbits on church grounds?

How did All Hallows Eve (Halloween) turn into “All Saints Eve”? Both surely focus on the souls of the dead. Why are all the holidays (holy days) named after Saints? (St. Valentine, St. Patrick, St. Nicholas, etc.) I can tell you, it’s because the Catholic church wanted as many pagan converts as they could get, without causing them much discomfort. They took the celebrations already practiced by the pagans and stamped the name of the Lord on them!

What gets me the MOST upset is that it is the Catholic priests who added to and subtracted from God’s Holy Bible! All you have to do is look up a set of the Catholic 10 Commandments and compare them to the Holy Bible’s 10 Commandments found in Exodus 20. They took out the second commandment regarding the carving and worship of graven images and divided the ninth into two because worshiping images of angels and saints is what THEY DO!

Guess where the doctrine of Lucifer came from? The name “Lucifer” is only found once in the Holy Bible and it was inserted. Lucifer is a Latin proper name and stands out like a sore thumb in Isa 14:12. That passage is specifically written about the king of Babylon (14:3). They teach other false doctrines, such as purgatory, infant baptism, consuming the literal body and blood of Christ, etc.

Regardless of the offensive practices of the Catholic (and subsequent Protestant) churches, we all should know and take heed to God’s warning in Rev 22:18-19: “For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and [from] the things which are written in this book.”

How can we tell what has been added or taken away? I never knew these things before, but by the power of the Holy Spirit, God opened my mind to understand the Scriptures (Luke 24:45).

It was Tertullian (150 - 225 AD) who first coined the term 'Trinity' (God in three persons) in the year 200. He was converted to Catholicism in 195 and became an ordained Priest in the year 200. Coincidence? It wasn't until the 15th century, the first official translation of the Hebrew and Greek text into Latin was done by yet another Catholic Priest, named Desiderius Erasmus Roterodamus in1516. It was called the Textus Receptus. He revised it in 1519, after Aldus Manutius translated from it in 1518, with independent text.

Because some influential Catholics were offended that Erasmus’ 1516 version did not contain the Trinitarian formula of “Father, Word and Holy Spirit” in 1 John 5:7, Erasmus explained that he wasn’t aware of any Greek manuscript with that wording. Hence, the Catholics came up with one, written by an Oxford scholar named Roy or Froy in 1520, known as the Codex 61. Though NO ONE has ever found Greek text containing this wording, Erasmus changed the text to please his Catholic hierarchs in his 1522 edition. This addition to the original Greek text has since been known as “The Johannine Comma”. Do you think the Codex 61 only included that verse? How many MORE Trinitarian alterations were made to the Scriptures in this document?

There were several more ‘revisions’ of Erasmus’ Textus Receptus, but the Trinity wording remained. These revisions went from Stephanus (1551) to Theodore de Bèza (1519-1605) to Elzevir (1624), with minor changes in 1633, to the 1873 Oxford edition, which is no longer available. The King James Version was translated from the Textus Receptus into English in 1611 (most likely from Theodore de Beza’s version). In fact, ALL Bible versions we have today are birthed from the Textus Receptus! Therefore, the 'foundational' doctrine of the 'Trinity', based on its altered translation, has only been around for less than five centuries!

• A bit of trivia for you...ever wonder why good 'ol King James changed the name of the Apostle Jacob to James? Jesus didn't have a disciple/Apostle named James. We even have the book of 'James', which is really the book of 'Jacob'!!

I found it quite alarming to find out the Catholic church did not allow their members to have a Holy Bible of their very own. No one was allowed to read or interpret the Scriptures, but the Pope/Priests. Those who rebelled and succeeded in printing Bibles for the people were hunted down and martyred!! Praise God we have the Bible today, though I will unfortunately show you that tares have certainly been sown among the Seed (the Word of God) through the Latin to English translation(s).

Since the Trinitarian ‘tare’ was added to 1 John 5:7, shouldn’t you test every other reference to such a doctrine throughout the Scriptures? Truly, it is also researchable that Mat 28:19 was altered. What was originally written as “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, in My name” was changed to “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name [singular] of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost”. Nice way to leave out His NAME...If this were a command of Jesus Christ, where is the second witness? Why is it we don’t find even ONE account of the Apostles baptizing in a three-fold 'name' in all the New Testament? Rather, we only see them baptizing in the name of the Lord Jesus (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; 22:16; Gal. 3:27; Rom. 6:3; 1 Cor. 1:13-15).

I'll tell you why:

"The Baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the 2nd century (The Catholic Encyclopedia, 2, pg 263)"

I think it blasphemous to put words in the mouth of our LORD, Jesus Christ, that He never said, don't you?

Gen 1:26 states, “Then God said, ‘Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.’” First of all, "Let Us" is an insertion. It is not in the original Hebrew. The interlinear will show you it should read "Said God make man Our image to Our likeness rule the fish of the sea, etc." The word ‘image’ is the Hebrew word ‘tsalem’ (figurative). Man, like the angels, was created to rule over the earth as the angels rule in the heavenly realm. Verse 27 puts God and His image in the singular: “God created man in His own image [singular noun], in the image [singular noun] of God He created him; male and female He created them.” Therefore, we know the angels did not have a part in the creation of man (Gen 2:4; Job 33:4), but were certainly present when man was created (Job 38:4-7).

So God created two people; does this mean God is two or three persons? The figurative image of the husband and wife is reflective of Christ and the Church (Eph 5:32 and all throughout scripture); the birth of a child by their union is likened to the new birth (John 3:5) into God’s family (elohim).

If you read my hub GOD: Let Us Make Man in Our Image? I go into the FACT that John 1:1 states "The Word was to [pros] God [theon - object] and God [theos - subject] was the Word [Θεος ην ο λογος]. In all these passages, I have resolved, as have Jewish scholars, that God was speaking to His heavenly host. To understand more as to the definition of 'Elohim' and why the word is plural, see Part 2.

Gen 3:22 states, “Then the LORD God said, ‘Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil; and now, he might stretch out his hand, and take also from the tree of life, and eat, and live forever "-- This was spoken at the fall of Adam and Eve in Garden of Eden. First of all, who ALSO took from the tree of life to eat and live forever? The Creator or the created angels? Did God not place cherubim to guard the entrance to the Garden, preventing Adam and Eve from eating of the tree of life? (Gen 3:24) Yes, angels were present and God was speaking to them.

Gen 11:7 states, “Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language, so that they will not understand one another's speech." Was God not accompanied by two of His angels when He appeared to Abraham, sending the two angels on to rescue Lot and his family from the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah? (Gen 18:2; 19:1). In both cases, God was accompanied by angels to execute His judgment. It is naive of some to think the threesome that appeared to Abraham was God in three persons!

In Isa 6:8 God says "Whom shall I send, and who will go for Us? Then said I, Here [am] I; send me." Verses 1-6 show us clearly that angels were present. And who volunteered? Not a member of the 'Trinity'. Compare this to 2 Kings 2:22-23 when the LORD asked for a volunteer to cause the prophets of Ahab to lie.

Lastly, John 14:23 states, “Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love Me, he will keep My words: and My Father will love him, and We will come unto him, and make Our abode with him.” Did Jesus contradict Himself just five verses before that, when He said "I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you"? (vs 18) "Orphans" is directly related to "Fatherless", not "Brotherless". Jesus would not leave them Fatherless; He, Himself, would come to them!

As with Mat 28:19, John 14:23 is yet another isolated verse that uses the Greek words eleusometha and poiesometha. It would be most helpful IF these words were used ANYWHERE else in the Greek New Testament, but they are NOT, in any context.

Isa 9:6 tells us the Son would be called "Everlasting Father". The Prophet also prophesied in 48:12 that God the Father is the Alpha [First/Beginning] and Omega [Last/End]; now, look at the words of Jesus is Rev 21:6-7: "Then He said to me, 'It is done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give to the one who thirsts from the spring of the water of life without cost. He who overcomes will inherit these things, and I will be his God and he will be My son." He is the Father, our God and Savior! (John 14:7-9); Furthermore, Jesus said in Rev 1:17-18 "Do not be afraid; I am the first and the last, and the living One; and I was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades." Cross-reference this with Isaiah 44:6:

• "This is what the LORD says--Israel's King and Redeemer, the LORD Almighty: 'I am the first and I am the last; apart from Me there is no God.'"

And what of Col 2:9? The KJV translates, “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily”. Look up the word 'Godhead' in the Greek, theotētos, and you will see it rightly translated in the NAS, NIV and others as “Deity”. We should not read into this word as a triune ‘Godhead’.

Prov 30:4 KJV states, “Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in His fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what [is] His name, and what [is] His Son's name, if thou canst tell?” Do you know what His name is?

First of all, let me say that the Old Testament prophesied of the coming Son of God more than once. Let's take another look at what the Prophet Isaiah wrote in 9:6 “For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulder: and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God [El], The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."

The LORD God gave us His name in Exodus 3:14, “I AM”. Likewise, God in the flesh was named ‘Jesus’ (YHWH Saves) in Mat 1:21 and ‘Immanuel’ (God with us) in Mat 1:23. Jesus revealed His name in John 8:58, “I AM”. Did you know what Jesus said to calm the storm when He came to His disciples walking on water, after His resurrection? “I AM” (Mark 6:48-50). Look up the Greek for what is translated as “it is I”. It should read exactly the same as John 8:58 “I AM” (egō eimi). Furthermore, what is said about the LORD God in Job 9:8? “Which [He] alone spreadeth out the heavens, and treadeth upon the waves of the sea.”

Isa 44:24 KJV "Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, and He that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by Myself;"

Let me ask you a question. In the Old Testament, did God ever reveal Himself in more than one person? Never. As mentioned earlier, He showed up in bodily form to meet with Abraham in Gen 18:2, and the two men with Him were angels (Gen 19:1). He also showed up in bodily form to wrestle with Jacob in Gen 32:24, 28 & 30. While God manifested Himself in Spirit (i.e. clouds and fire) and in bodily form, He never showed up in multiples. As I said before, the Jews witnessed God in Spirit and body, they never compromised the first Holy Commandment (Deut 6:4; Mark 12:29) by splitting God into ‘persons’. God is one person: Job 13:8 verifies, “Will ye accept His person? will ye contend for God?” "...Christ is the brightness of [His] glory, and the express image of His person (Heb 1:3).

You might ask what I did, which was “Why didn’t God just show up in adult, human form to save us? Why did He have to be born of a virgin to become a man of flesh and blood?" God answered me. The Apostle Paul wrote in 1 Cor 15:50, “Now I say this, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.” The LORD’s appearance in the Old Testament was imperishable. And based on the Law given to Moses, Heb 9:22 tells us, "And according to the Law, one may almost say, all things are cleansed with blood, and without shedding of blood there is no forgiveness." Gal 4:4-5 states, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." God had to shed His blood and His flesh had to perish, in order to save us.

Now look at Acts 20:28 “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which He hath purchased with His own blood.”

Maybe you think God showed up as a multiple in the New Testament baptism of Jesus. Just as we consider Mat 22:44/Ps 110:1, "The LORD said unto my Lord" and Heb 1:8/Ps 45:6 "But of the Son He says, 'Your throne, O GOD, is forever and ever'", at the baptism of Jesus the Word (Spirit) spoke to the Word (flesh)! (Mat 3:17). If the manifestation of a dove is to be counted as another 'person' of God, then we must also consider the other six manifestations of God throughout history: immortal flesh to Abraham and Jacob (Gen 18:2; 19:1; Gen 32:24, 28, 30); the Angel of the LORD (Ex 3:2; Josh 5:13; 6:2; Jud 6:11, 14), the Rock at Horeb (Ex 17:6. 1 Cor 10:4), clouds and fire (Num 14:14) and the human body of the Son.

Did the Spirit of God take on the form of a literal dove (bird)? John 1:32 states the Spirit descended 'like a dove'. Why this manifestation? John the Baptist said in the next verse (33), "I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, 'He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the One [Jesus] who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.'"

1 Tim 3:16 is just as important as John 3:16, when it comes to the TRUTH:

"And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory." Since the word "God" is not in the original Greek, we must look at the previous verse to confirm it indeed was God manifest in the flesh: "but in case I am delayed, I write so that you will know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth."

I invite you to continue on with me Part 2, which will cover the following:

• Why is Elohim plural?
• The Word was with God
• Stephen saw God and the Son at His right hand (including 1 Cor 11:3 "The Head of Christ is God")
• Delivering up the Kingdom and Subjection of the Son
• My Father is Greater than I
• The Son doesn’t know the Day nor the Hour
• Another Comforter
• Jesus calls the Father ‘My God’
• Jesus and the Holy Spirit make Intercession for us
• God and the Lamb in Revelation
• The Holy Spirit and Jesus come out from the Father